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effects
Oct 5, 2004 17:23:27 GMT -5
Post by Skull on Oct 5, 2004 17:23:27 GMT -5
I need help and I'm almost 100% sure that I'm right about this. But when you activate magic or trap cards to destroy monster with effects (flip effects also) or have one of your own effect monsters use it's effect to destroy the other effect monster is it's effect activated?
Example: You: set Man-Eater Bug Me: use Raigeki if I were to do that would the effect be activated?
Example: You: set Man-eater Bug Me: use exiled force's effect to destroy it would Man-eater's effect be activated?
that's all I can think of now. I just wanted to know becasue I dueled somebody today who said that. I am almost sure that that is now how it works.
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effects
Oct 5, 2004 21:23:06 GMT -5
Post by bluepokenut on Oct 5, 2004 21:23:06 GMT -5
When a monsters effect or a cards effect destroys it, it does NOT flip up. Man eater bug has to be flipped up to us its effect. It has to be atked,flip summoned ,or manually flipped. Raigeki destroys it how can you use its effect?? It never flips. Exiled destroys it. How can it use its effect?? It never flips.
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effects
Jan 10, 2005 18:07:17 GMT -5
Post by Skull on Jan 10, 2005 18:07:17 GMT -5
ok, I just wanted to make sure. It wasn't me that thought that, I have a few friends that play by the 2.0 rules and I am trying to teach them how to play correctly.
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